For and
define
together with the convention that
if
.
If then for every
:
To be shown is that for each nonnegative integer
. The base case
is obvious.
Let it be that and that the statement is true for
. Then:
showing that the statement is also true for .
By induction it has now been shown that for each nonnegative integer
.
Think of equal the sum of the coefficients .
EDIT: This is not a good recipe for induction , but hopefully it gives some insight into the problem, and , I hope, a nice, direct alternative proof.
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Hello,
I want to know the sum of combinations without repetition between x elements.
I know I need to calculate (nk) and sum all the results so If I need to know the total of combinations between 8 elements it's (81)+(82)+(83)+(84)+(85)+(86)+(87)+(88).
I found https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_coefficient#Pascal's_triangle but I don't understand if it's possible to have the result of the sum of all combinations so in my example (81)+(82)+(83)+(84)+(85)+(86)+(87)+(88) = 1+8+28+56+70+56+28+8+1 = 256 in one operation instead of 8 "(nk)" + 1 sum so 9 operations.
I don't know if I'm clear because it isn't easy for me to speak mathematics in english but... I try xD
Thank you.
My understanding is that each term in the binomial expansion of (p+q)n gives a possible set of outcomes of a coin flip, for example a term in (p+q)4 will have one term like p2q2 which represents two heads and two tails. But we need to multiply p2q2 by the binomial coefficient since there are multiple sequences of flips that can give rise to two heads and two tails
But what is the interpretation of all the binomial coefficients being added? Is there any interesting interpretation, in terms of probabilities or otherwise?
Do you know that $(1+x)^n = \sum_{k=0}^{n} (^n_k)1^{n-k}x^{k} = (^n_0)+(^n_1)x+...+ (^n_n)x^n $? We need $x=1$ here.
If $X$ is a set with $\# X =n$, then $\binom{n}{0}$ is the number of subsets with no elements, $\binom{n}{1}$ is the number of subsets with one element and so on. So $\sum_{j=0}^n \binom{n}{j}$ gives the number of all subsets of $X$ which is $2^n$ since $\# \mathcal P (X)=2^n$.
[This is why some people write $2^X$ for the powerset of $X$ instead $\mathcal P(X)$.]


