In general, there are four possible variants for what we call intervals. The parenthesis and are related to the strict inequality , while these ones and are related to the weaker . So, when we want to denote intervals, we use them as follows

$$\{x \text{ such that } a<x<b\}=(a,b)\{x \text{ such that } a\leq x<b\}=[a,b)\{x \text{ such that } a<x \leq b\}=(a,b]\{x \text{ such that } a \leq x \leq b\}=[a,b]$$

You might also see for , that is, the reversed are used just like parenthesis.

There is also what we call "rays" (which are also intervals), which involve a "one sided" inequality:

$$\{x \text{ such that } a<x\}=(a,\infty)\{x \text{ such that } a\leq x\}=[a,\infty)\{x \text{ such that } x \leq b\}=(-\infty,b]\{x \text{ such that } x < b\}=(-\infty,b)$$

and what we usually denote by the real line

$$\{x \text{ such that }x\in \Bbb R \}=(-\infty,\infty)$$

Answer from Pedro on Stack Exchange
🌐
Reddit
reddit.com › r/learnmath › why do we say 1/0=undefined instead of 1/0=infinity?
r/learnmath on Reddit: Why do we say 1/0=undefined instead of 1/0=infinity?
October 24, 2020 -

Like 10/2- imagine a 10 square foot box, saying 10 divided by 2 is like saying “how many 2 square foot boxes fit in this 10 square foot box?” So the answer is 5.

But if you take the same box and ask “how many boxes that are infinitely small, or zero feet squared, can fit in the same box the answer would be infinity not “undefined”. So 10/0=infinity.

I understand why 2/0 can’t be 0 not only because that doesn’t make and since but also because it could cause terrible contradictions like 1=2 and such.

Ah math is so cool. I love infinity so if anyone wants to talk about it drop a comment.

Edit: thanks everyone so much for the answers. Keep leaving comments though because I’m really enjoying seeing it explained in different ways. Also it doesn’t seem like anyone else has ever been confused by this judging by the comment but if anyone is I really liked this video https://www.khanacademy.org/math/algebra/x2f8bb11595b61c86:foundation-algebra/x2f8bb11595b61c86:division-zero/v/why-dividing-by-zero-is-undefined

In general, there are four possible variants for what we call intervals. The parenthesis and are related to the strict inequality , while these ones and are related to the weaker . So, when we want to denote intervals, we use them as follows

$$\{x \text{ such that } a<x<b\}=(a,b)\{x \text{ such that } a\leq x<b\}=[a,b)\{x \text{ such that } a<x \leq b\}=(a,b]\{x \text{ such that } a \leq x \leq b\}=[a,b]$$

You might also see for , that is, the reversed are used just like parenthesis.

There is also what we call "rays" (which are also intervals), which involve a "one sided" inequality:

$$\{x \text{ such that } a<x\}=(a,\infty)\{x \text{ such that } a\leq x\}=[a,\infty)\{x \text{ such that } x \leq b\}=(-\infty,b]\{x \text{ such that } x < b\}=(-\infty,b)$$

and what we usually denote by the real line

$$\{x \text{ such that }x\in \Bbb R \}=(-\infty,\infty)$$

Answer from Pedro on Stack Exchange
🌐
Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Zero_to_the_power_of_zero
Zero to the power of zero - Wikipedia
January 28, 2026 - In certain areas of mathematics, such as combinatorics and algebra, 00 is conventionally defined as 1 because this assignment simplifies many formulas and ensures consistency in operations involving exponents. For instance, in combinatorics, defining 00 = 1 aligns with the interpretation of choosing 0 elements from a set and simplifies polynomial and binomial expansions.
🌐
Reddit
reddit.com › r/math › why the factorial of 0 is always 1?
r/math on Reddit: Why the factorial of 0 is always 1?
January 16, 2022 - The algebraic explanation, similar to how we explain negative exponents, is that (n-1)!=n!/n. Given that constraint and that 1!=1, you can define all positive integers and 0 becomes 0!=1!/1=1. This also explains why factorials aren't defined for negative numbers, since 0!/0 is undefined. ... I was with you for a long time. Didn't love the idea of defining factorials with permutations. In particular, what bothered me was that factorials came up in contexts that have no connection to permutations.
🌐
Reddit
reddit.com › r/explainlikeimfive › eli5: why is 0!=1?
r/explainlikeimfive on Reddit: ELI5: why is 0!=1?
July 27, 2023 - There's nothing in there, it's empty, we have zero things to arrange. But that is still technically a valid set, so we count it, and 0! = 1. ... Perfect explanation, thank you! Take some of my about to be worthless coins! ... I forgot that definition of factorial. What’s the difference between
🌐
Medium
omerseyfeddinkoc.medium.com › why-is-0-1-a-surprisingly-logical-fact-of-mathematics-216b74046d70
Why Is 0! = 1? A Surprisingly Logical Fact of Mathematics | by Omer Seyfeddin Koc | Medium
July 20, 2025 - It might sound strange, but this “empty arrangement” is still considered a valid arrangement. In combinatorics, an empty set has exactly one subset: itself, and there’s exactly one way to arrange nothing. So, we define 0! = 1 to reflect that.
🌐
Brilliant
brilliant.org › wiki › what-is-1-0
What is 1 divided by 0? | Brilliant Math & Science Wiki
The statement is \( \color{blue}{\textbf{true}}\). ... If \( \frac10 = r\) were a real number, then \( r\cdot 0 = 1,\) but this is impossible for any \( r.\) See division by zero for more details.
Find elsewhere
🌐
Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › 0
0 - Wikipedia
14 hours ago - The natural number following 0 is 1 and no natural number precedes 0. The number 0 may or may not be considered a natural number, but it is an integer, and hence a rational number and a real number.
🌐
ThoughtCo
thoughtco.com › why-does-zero-factorial-equal-one-3126598
Why Does Zero Factorial Equal One?
May 18, 2024 - The first reason why zero factorial is equal to one is that the definition of the factorial states that 0! = 1. A definition is a mathematically correct explanation (even if a somewhat unsatisfying one).
🌐
Mathematics LibreTexts
math.libretexts.org › bookshelves › calculus › clp-1 differential calculus (feldman, rechnitzer, and yeager) › 0: the basics
0.1: Numbers - Mathematics LibreTexts
November 18, 2021 - Even numbers — an integer is ... of 2 and another integer. This means that \(-14, 6\) and \(0\) are all even. Odd numbers — an integer is odd when it is not even. Equivalently it can be written as \(2k+1\) where \(k\) is another integer....
🌐
Medium
ali.medium.com › why-does-zero-factorial-0-equal-one-82a948c7c95b
Why Does Zero Factorial (0!) Equal One? | by Ali | Medium
September 5, 2024 - As I wandered among terms such as “electricity,” “soccer,” “spacecraft,” and “iPhone” in my head, I suddenly came across what deserved the distinction to be coined as “humanity’s greatest discovery.” In the words of the beloved late artist Bob Ross, “let’s draw a happy tree here” and similarly “let’s draw a circle here and call it zero” to illustrate Al-Khwarizmi’s effort to define nothingness 1200 years ago, which is arguable, in my opinion, humanity’s most remarkable discovery.
🌐
Vedantu
vedantu.com › question-answer › what-is-1-divided-by-0-class-8-maths-cbse-606699e1b5faf907b7b38291
What is 1 divided by 0 class 8 maths CBSE
January 17, 2026 - Note: We must remember that the value of 1 divided by 0 is infinity only in the case of limits. The word infinity signifies the length of the number. In the case of limits, we only assume that the value of limit x tends to something and not equal to something.
🌐
Quora
quora.com › Is-0-1-How-is-that-possible
Is 0=1? How is that possible? - Quora
Answer (1 of 5): Answered without watching the video How is it possible that 0 = 1 ? 0! is indeed equal to 1! * There is one way to rearrange the empty set, the set of zero items * * { } * 0! = 1 * There is one way to rearrange a set containing one item * * 1! = 1 * You will learn ...
🌐
HMC Math
math.hmc.edu › funfacts › one-equals-zero
One Equals Zero! – Math Fun Facts
The following is a “proof” that one equals zero. ... x = y. Then x2 = xy. Subtract the same thing from both sides: x2 – y2 = xy – y2. Dividing by (x-y), obtain x + y = y. Since x = y, we see that 2 y = y. Thus 2 = 1, since we started with y nonzero. Subtracting 1 from both sides, 1 = 0.
🌐
Quora
quora.com › Why-is-0-1-equal-to-zero
Why is 0/1 equal to zero? - Quora
Answer (1 of 10): Zero indicate that there is no object present. Whereas its a real or imaginary objects, zero indicate nil. It is also can be understood physically . If there is no balance in your account or if there is no matter in the object which is being asked then we say ‘zero'. When al...
🌐
The Math Doctors
themathdoctors.org › zero-factorial-why-does-0-1
Zero Factorial: Why Does 0! = 1 ? – The Math Doctors
Obviously there is only one handshake. But what happens if we put n = 2 (2 people) and k = 2 (2 people per handshake) in the formula? We get 2! / (2! 0!). This is 2/(2 x), where x is the value of 0!. The fraction reduces to 1/x, which must equal 1 since there is only 1 handshake.
🌐
Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › 1
1 - Wikipedia
3 weeks ago - While this is the simplest way to represent the natural numbers, base-1 is rarely used as a practical base for counting due to its difficult readability. In many mathematical and engineering problems, numeric values are typically normalized to fall within the unit interval ... {\displaystyle [0,1]} , where 1 represents the maximum possible value.
🌐
Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Division_by_zero
Division by zero - Wikipedia
1 week ago - Adjoining a multiplicative inverses to a commutative ring is called localization. However, the localization of every commutative ring at zero is the trivial ring, where ⁠ ... {\displaystyle 0=1} ⁠, so nontrivial commutative rings do not have inverses at zero, and thus division by zero is undefined for nontrivial commutative rings.