yup, definitely undefined from this view. Answer from Deleted User on reddit.com
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Reddit
reddit.com › r/learnmath › why do we say 1/0=undefined instead of 1/0=infinity?
r/learnmath on Reddit: Why do we say 1/0=undefined instead of 1/0=infinity?
October 24, 2020 -

Like 10/2- imagine a 10 square foot box, saying 10 divided by 2 is like saying “how many 2 square foot boxes fit in this 10 square foot box?” So the answer is 5.

But if you take the same box and ask “how many boxes that are infinitely small, or zero feet squared, can fit in the same box the answer would be infinity not “undefined”. So 10/0=infinity.

I understand why 2/0 can’t be 0 not only because that doesn’t make and since but also because it could cause terrible contradictions like 1=2 and such.

Ah math is so cool. I love infinity so if anyone wants to talk about it drop a comment.

Edit: thanks everyone so much for the answers. Keep leaving comments though because I’m really enjoying seeing it explained in different ways. Also it doesn’t seem like anyone else has ever been confused by this judging by the comment but if anyone is I really liked this video https://www.khanacademy.org/math/algebra/x2f8bb11595b61c86:foundation-algebra/x2f8bb11595b61c86:division-zero/v/why-dividing-by-zero-is-undefined

yup, definitely undefined from this view. Answer from Deleted User on reddit.com
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Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Division_by_zero
Division by zero - Wikipedia
1 week ago - {\displaystyle 0=1} ⁠, so nontrivial commutative rings do not have inverses at zero, and thus division by zero is undefined for nontrivial commutative rings.
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Quora
quora.com › Why-is-1-0-undefined
Why is 1/0 undefined? - Quora
Answer (1 of 19): Imagine a block of wood. It is 1 meter and is uniform in shape. You have an extra sharp blade than can cut through the block easily. Someone asks you to cut it into pieces of 0.5m. You can do that easily. In the end you will get 2 blocks. Now someone asks you to cut another 1m b...
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Quora
quora.com › How-can-1-0-or-0-1-be-infinity-or-undefined
How can 1/0 or 0/1 be infinity or undefined? - Quora
0/n = 0 where n is any number ∴ 0/1 = 0 But 1/0 is undefined Why? Let's take values close 0 from + side as denominator and 1 as numerator Which is same as : lim as x →0+ which is positive infinity 1/1 = 1 1/0.1 = 10 1/0.01 = 100 1/0....
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Medium
medium.com › @midlight › why-is-1-0-undefined-e424489b4368
Why Is 1/0 Undefined?. Remember that time in high school when… | by Midlight | Medium
August 20, 2023 - So, at 0, f(x) tries to be both ∞ and -∞ at the same time (meaning 1/0 tries to be ∞ and -∞ at the same time). That’s illegal, if you ask me, since a function should only have one unique output value for each possible input value. Well, that marks the end of this short article. This is a shower thought I had and decided to do research and write about it.
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Quora
quora.com › Why-do-some-people-say-that-1-0-is-undefined-while-other-people-say-it-is-infinity-Which-side-of-this-endless-debate-is-right
Why do some people say that 1/0 is undefined while other people say it is infinity? Which side of this endless debate is right? - Quora
First, there are systems where 1/0 is defined. In the reals, it’s undefined for the simple reason that there are no infinite reals, and obviously there’s no finite number big enough to be 1/0. But there’s nothing illegal about talking about different kinds of numbers.
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Medium
prabhatmahato.medium.com › why-is-any-number-over-0-undefined-or-what-we-say-infinity-5318dc5b0153
Why is any number over 0 undefined or what we say infinity? | by Prabhat Mahato | Medium
March 31, 2023 - Uh Oh, it looks like this will ... to be subtracted from 1 for the result to be 0. So simply, we cannot define 1/0 in normal division terms and hence is undefined....
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The problem is, when taking a limit, we're not actually saying $x=0$; we're just taking numbers really close to $0$. So when you say

One of the properties of $0$ is that no power modifies it, so wouldn't the two functions be equivalent at $0$?

The difference here is that when we use $x=\varepsilon >0$, then both $\tfrac 1x$ and $\tfrac 1{x^2}$ are positive, but when $x=-\varepsilon<0$, then $\tfrac 1x$ is negative but $\tfrac 1{x^2}$ is positive. So really, this doesn't have anything to do with $0$, it's just that negative numbers squared give a positive number.


To expand on the fact that you say $\lim_{x\to0}\frac1x$ does not have a limit and $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac 1{x^2}$ does; this is simply because, when approached from the left, the first limit should be $-\infty$, but when approached from the right, the first limit should be $+\infty$. This is why the first limit is indefinite.

The second however gives $+\infty$ no matter how you approach $0$, but this, as explained above, has to do with the fact that $(-x)^2=x^2$. There are no hole in algebra, nor are there in calculus; I suggest you read into the definition of limits again to refresh your view on this.

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There are a couple of things here that are a bit confusing, so let's break them down. We say: $$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{1}{x^2} = \infty$$

But we don't actually mean that it "equals infinity". The limit is still indefinite. The notation $\lim_{x\to a} \_\_\_ = \infty$ is actually shorthand to mean "as $x$ goes to $a$, the limit goes to an arbitrarily large positive."

The second part you have here is how zero functions:

One of the properties of $0$ is that no power modifies it, so wouldn't the two functions be equivalent at $0$?

You are correct! No power of zero modifies its value, and those two functions are "equivalent" at zero, in that they are both undefined.

The difference here is the limit. In a limit, you can approach the value (or indefinite value) from the "left" or "right" side of the variable. Whereas the limit in $\frac{1}{x^2}$ is positive no matter which direction it's approached from, the limit in $\frac{1}{x}$ is negative on the left side and positive on the right side. So, we can say that the limit for $\frac{1}{x^2}$ is arbitrarily positive, but $\frac{1}{x}$ can be positive or negative depending on which side you approach it.

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The Math Doctors
themathdoctors.org › zero-divided-by-zero-undefined-and-indeterminate
Zero Divided By Zero: Undefined and Indeterminate – The Math Doctors
You say that "the value of 0/0 is dependent on the situation." The word I would use for this is "indeterminate." Here is what we mean by "indeterminate." The value of 1/0 is called "undefined" because there is NO number x that satisfies the equation 1/0 = x, or equivalently, 0*x = 1.
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Another perspective:If you say 10 divided by 2, it means how many times must you add 2 to get 10. Hence, the common wording: How many time does 2 go into 10. For any real number divided by another will give a larger answer as the second number gets smaller.Try 2 divided by 0.001..... the answer is 2,0002 divided by 0.0001: 20,000We can easily see that dividing by a very small number will give an answer that is very large. Sometimes we say that dividing by 0 gives an answer of "infinity". But this is ambiguous. For example 1/0 would not be expected to be the same as 1,000,000 divided by 0. Thus, it is more correct to simply say that it is undefined.
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think of it this way, If I have anything once, or one time, then I have anything, If I have one apple 1 time, I have one apple. so 1 apple 1 times is 1 apple. but if I have 1 apple NO times, then i simply don't have an apple at all do I? so anything zero times is zero, i.e. it is anything because you've stipulated that it happened zero times, i.e. it never happened at all. so anything times zero equals nothing.If you have 1 apple, and you divide it by 1, you still have one apple. if you divide it by 2, you have half an apple. but if you divide it by nothing, you have done nothing. that doesn't mean you have 1 apple since 1 apple divided by 1 = an apple, 1 apple divided by nothing cannot also equal 1 apple. In effect, dividing something by zero is undefined because by definition you have done nothing.Since we know that any integer multiplied by zero, = zero, and any integer divided by 1 = the same integer, we are left with any integer being divided by nothing as an undefined situation, there is no number that can represent the solution. hope this helps, it's simply that numbers have a domain and dividing by zero is not defined in the domain. good luck with this, the wikipedia explanation is pretty dense.
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Physics Forums
physicsforums.com › mathematics › general math
Why is 0/0 Undefined and 0^0 Equal to 1? • Physics Forums
August 11, 2004 - The discussion centers on the mathematical concepts of 0/0 being undefined and 0^0 being equal to 1. It explains that 0/0 is undefined because it can lead to any number being a solution, creating ambiguity in division.
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Physics Forums
physicsforums.com › mathematics › linear and abstract algebra
What Does 1/0 Mean and Why is It Undefined? • Physics Forums
November 14, 2003 - By the way, because of the distinction that NateTG noted, any x satisfies x*0= 0 but no x satisfies x*0= b for b non-zero, it is common to say that 0/0 is "undetermined" while b/0, for b non-zero, is "undefined".
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Justin Skycak
justinmath.com › undefined-versus-infinity
Q&A: Undefined versus Infinity - Justin Skycak
December 2, 2023 - 0/0 is undefined because ANY number, when multiplied by 0, produces 0. The expression 0/0 is not defined to refer to any specific one of those numbers. 1/0 is undefined because NO number, when multiplied by 0, produces 1.
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Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Zero_to_the_power_of_zero
Zero to the power of zero - Wikipedia
January 28, 2026 - Mathematica and PARI/GP further ... return a 1 of the type of the base; exponentiation with a floating-point exponent of value zero is treated as undefined, indeterminate or error....