If you want to stay out of trouble, then the last way you wrote it may be the best. This is because the function for real and is generally defined as , and and are generally defined by power series, which require where is a whole number. This is easy to define as "repeated multiplication", as long as you don't let . Then, the power series definition will imply that for all nonzero real . However, it gives no value for when . By limits, it's clear to see that there is no value for which makes continuous at , so there's no "natural" choice in that sense. In this case, the power series for does not imply any value for .

You can, of course, deal with at the beginning, by letting for all real (including ). This basically chooses to be as a convention, and one upshot of this is that it simplifies the power series definition of exponential functions. But in this case, the choice of implies the power series for is , not the other way around.

So, no matter how you slice it, the power series for does not imply that , but rather we can choose to let to imply the simplified power series for .

Answer from Alex Jones on Stack Exchange
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Quora
quora.com › How-can-I-prove-that-e-0-1
How to prove that e^0=1 - Quora
Answer (1 of 6): It's not necessary to prove it for e. Here is an analogy that might help to prove it in general. Let's assume that you have 3 balls and 3 boxes. In how many ways can you fill in the boxes without restrictions? Answer: The first ball can be filled in 3 boxes. Second ball can...
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If you want to stay out of trouble, then the last way you wrote it may be the best. This is because the function for real and is generally defined as , and and are generally defined by power series, which require where is a whole number. This is easy to define as "repeated multiplication", as long as you don't let . Then, the power series definition will imply that for all nonzero real . However, it gives no value for when . By limits, it's clear to see that there is no value for which makes continuous at , so there's no "natural" choice in that sense. In this case, the power series for does not imply any value for .

You can, of course, deal with at the beginning, by letting for all real (including ). This basically chooses to be as a convention, and one upshot of this is that it simplifies the power series definition of exponential functions. But in this case, the choice of implies the power series for is , not the other way around.

So, no matter how you slice it, the power series for does not imply that , but rather we can choose to let to imply the simplified power series for .

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0

is equal to because multiplying by something times amounts to not multiplying by anything, which is the same as multiplying by

However, at the same time, is an indeterminate form because if and as then can approach or or or any other member of depending on what functions and are. However, in a sense, in most cases the limit of will be One case is when within some "sector", i.e. it stays between two positively sloped lines in the -plane.

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ProofWiki
proofwiki.org › wiki › Exponential_of_Zero
Exponential of Zero - ProofWiki
2 Proof 1 · 3 Proof 2 · 4 Proof 3 · 5 Proof 4 · 6 Proof 5 · 7 Sources · Let $\exp x$ be the exponential of $x$. Then: $\exp 0 = 1$ We have that the exponential function is the inverse of the natural logarithm function: $\ln 1 = 0$ Hence the result.
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Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › E_(mathematical_constant)
e (mathematical constant) - Wikipedia
1 week ago - The parenthesized limit on the right is independent of the variable x. Its value turns out to be the logarithm of a to base e. Thus, when the value of a is set to e, this limit is equal to 1, and so one arrives at the following simple identity: ... Consequently, the exponential function with base e is particularly suited to doing calculus. Choosing e (as opposed to some other number) as the base of the exponential function makes calculations involving the derivatives much simpler. Another motivation comes from considering the derivative of the base-a logarithm (i.e., loga x), for x > 0:
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Medium
medium.com › @satoshihgsn › e-iπ-1-0-the-most-beautiful-theorem-in-mathematics-493a7f4e7332
e^(iπ) + 1 = 0: The Most Beautiful Theorem in Mathematics | by Satoshi Higashino | Medium
2 weeks ago - e^(iπ) + 1 = 0: The Most Beautiful Theorem in Mathematics The equation above is called Euler’s identity where e: Euler’s number, the base of natural logarithms (2.71828 ……) i: imaginary …
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YouTube
youtube.com › watch
Why is x^0 = 1 (Quick Proof) - YouTube
Why is x^0 = 1? ProofUsing simple mathematical tools we can prove that x to the power of zero is 1 by dividing indices i.e (x^n/x^n) = x^(n-n) = x^0 and this...
Published   February 27, 2018
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Reddit
reddit.com › r/askscience › is there mathematical proof that n^0=1?
r/askscience on Reddit: is there mathematical proof that n^0=1?
December 14, 2014 - If you accept the exponent law as an axiom, then this is in fact the outline of a proof. ... Well, yes. But it's not like we'll make up a whole axiom to define such a simple concept. If you define x0 = 1 and xn+1 = x*xn you get something just as intuitive, but without having to add another axiom. more replies More replies More replies More replies ... Because of the multiplication preceding. N^a * N^b = N^(a+b) N^a * N^0 = N^(a+0) = N^a N^a * N^0 = N^a
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Science Trends
sciencetrends.com › home › what is e^0 (e to the power of 0)?
What Is e^0 (E To The Power Of 0)? - Science Trends
March 3, 2020 - If you remember your exponents, the answer to this question is easy. For all numbers, raising that number to the 0th power is equal to one. So we know that: e0=1 This answer relies on an intrinsic property of the way exponentiation is defined.
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ProofWiki
proofwiki.org › wiki › Exponential_of_Zero_and_One
Exponential of Zero and One - ProofWiki
From ProofWiki · Jump to navigation Jump to search · Let $\exp x$ be the exponential of $x$. Then: $\exp 0 = 1$ $\exp 1 = e$ where $e$ is Euler's number: $e = 2.718281828\ldots$ Retrieved from "https://proofwiki.org/w/index.php?title=Exponential_of_Zero_and_One&oldid=353851" Categories: ...
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Physics Forums
physicsforums.com › mathematics › general math
My simple proof of x^0 = 1
May 29, 2007 - This is not a proof, it's a pattern. x^0 = 1 is defined. ... Neutrino's proof is the basic elementary method. However, with Kurdt's method; I accept it. However one must be careful when taking logarithms, as this restricts the limit to which a function may take, as I found the hard way...
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Mathway
mathway.com › popular-problems › Algebra › 217552
Convert to Logarithmic Form e^0=1 | Mathway
Convert to Logarithmic Form e^0=1 · Step 1 · Convert the exponential equation to a logarithmic equation using the logarithm base of the right side equals the exponent . Please ensure that your password is at least 8 characters and contains each of the following: a number ·
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Physics Forums
physicsforums.com › mathematics › general math
How can x^0 be equal to 1? • Physics Forums
May 29, 2007 - I always wondered, how can any number raised to the power of 0 be 1. So, I came up with this! ( * = multiplication sign) 1 * 4 * 4 * 4 = 4^3 1* 4 * 4 = 4^2 1 * 4 = 4^1 Therefore, 1 = 4^0 Here's my proof that 4^0=0: 4^3=4*4*4+0 4^2=4*4+0 4^1=4+0 4^0=0 Can you explain why your proof is better than mine?
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Homeschool Math
homeschoolmath.net › teaching › zero-exponent-proof.php
Proof that a number to the zero power is one - math lesson from Homeschool Math
1st grade · 2nd grade · 3rd grade · 4th grade · 5th grade · 6th grade · 7th grade · Elementary · Number Charts · Addition · Multiplication · Division · Long division · Basic operations · Measuring · Telling time · Place value · Rounding · Roman numerals ·
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Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Exponential_function
Exponential function - Wikipedia
January 30, 2026 - Most of the definitions of the exponential function can be used verbatim for definiting the complex exponential function, and the proof of their equivalence is the same as in the real case. The complex exponential function can be defined in several equivalent ways that are the same as in the real case. The complex exponential is the unique complex function that equals its complex derivative and takes the value ⁠ ... {\displaystyle e^{z}=\sum _{k=0}^{\infty }{\frac {z^{k}}{k!}}.} This series is absolutely convergent for every complex number ⁠
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Physics Forums
physicsforums.com › homework help › calculus and beyond homework help
Solving the Mystery of exp(0)=1 in e^x Series • Physics Forums
August 22, 2006 - Hi, I've run into a bit of a problem. I don't know why I didn't resolve this issue when I first learned about series but the following is bugging me. e^x = \sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty...
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Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Zero_to_the_power_of_zero
Zero to the power of zero - Wikipedia
January 28, 2026 - In the complex domain, the function zw may be defined for nonzero z by choosing a branch of log z and defining zw as ew log z. This does not define 0w since there is no branch of log z defined at z = 0, let alone in a neighborhood of 0. In 1752, Euler in Introductio in analysin infinitorum wrote that a0 = 1 and explicitly mentioned that 00 = 1.
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Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org › wiki › Euler's_identity
Euler's identity - Wikipedia
18 hours ago - {\displaystyle -i} are the only complex numbers with a zero real part and a norm (absolute value) equal to 1. Euler's identity is a direct result of Euler's formula, first published in his monumental 1748 work of mathematical analysis, Introductio in analysin infinitorum, but it is questionable whether the particular concept of linking five fundamental constants in a compact form can be attributed to Euler himself, as he may never have expressed it.
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Cuemath
cuemath.com › questions › what-is-the-value-of-e-to-the-power-of-0
What is the value of e to the power of 0?
To find e to the power of 0, we can write it in exponent form as e0, where x is base and 0 is power. Power should always be written on top of the base. Here we observe that e0 is in a0 format so by using the exponent rule we can say that e0 = 1.
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Reddit
reddit.com › r/math › why does anything to the power of 0 equal 1?
r/math on Reddit: Why does anything to the power of 0 equal 1?
November 12, 2021 -

First I want to say I’m doing algebra 1 this year and this may be covered later in math, but ever since I learned anything the the power of 0 equals 1 I’ve been confused by that. I’ve tried searching it online but I can’t find anything that explains it, everything I can find doesn’t answer the question.

From my understanding how exponents work is the exponent is how many of that number you have then you multiply them. For ex. 324 is 32 * 32 * 32 * 32. So shouldn’t for ex. 920 = 0 since that would mean you don’t have any 92s.

Edit: thanks to everyone who actually answered in stead of saying that it’s not true with 00 or just not answering.