It is just the contracted form.
Contracted forms are not used when verb has its own meaning.
— I have my homework. (have stands for possession.)
—I've my homework.
— I have finished my homework. (have is an auxiliary.)
They are not used in short answers:
— Have you done your homework?
— Yes, I have.Yes, I've.
Also, when writing formal stuff, you normally use non-contracted forms. For instance, in an essay.
There's a difference in spoken English when you stress the non-contracted form. Compare:
Answer from Schwale on Stack Exchange— I've finished my homework.
(Standard statement.)
— I have finished my homework.
(Emphasis when speaking.)
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Is saying “I’ve to take a phone call” proper English, if I’ve is a contraction of I have, wouldn’t it make sense, and do people just not say it?
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meaning - "I made it" vs. "I've made it" - English Language Learners Stack Exchange
It is just the contracted form.
Contracted forms are not used when verb has its own meaning.
— I have my homework. (have stands for possession.)
—I've my homework.
— I have finished my homework. (have is an auxiliary.)
They are not used in short answers:
— Have you done your homework?
— Yes, I have.Yes, I've.
Also, when writing formal stuff, you normally use non-contracted forms. For instance, in an essay.
There's a difference in spoken English when you stress the non-contracted form. Compare:
— I've finished my homework.
(Standard statement.)
— I have finished my homework.
(Emphasis when speaking.)
You can't use pronoun-auxiliary contractions if they're final in a sentence
(so they can't be used in tag questions, for instance).
In general, if it's unstressed -- which is the norm, and a good reason for contraction -- a pronoun subject will be contracted with an auxiliary if there is one. The more stress the pronoun has, the less likely it is to be contracted with an auxiliary. The faster you're talking, the more likely it is. English speakers make decisions like this every time they open their mouths, automatically.
Since it's hard to stress pronouns (the reason we use pronouns is to avoid extra stressed syllables), it's almost universal to contract pronoun subjects and auxiliary verbs in English,
unless the auxiliary verb is already contracted with another word, like isn't.
In writing, of course, there is no good way to represent contractions.
Only apostrophes,
which are problematic -- they don't represent English, just typography.
They're, their, and there, for instance, are pronounced identically in English;
however, English speakers never feel confused about what they mean.
Only about how to spell them.
Hello! This subject (i think i just used that word wrong, please correct me if i did) has been confusing me a bit for a while, and i could'nt find any information about this on internet so if someone can explain this to me it would be really helpful.
"I made it" is used with a reference to a specific time, often implicitly now or today. For example, one would say "I made it" after climbing to the peak of a mountain, or when saying "I made it as a professional swimmer on 2 January 1982 when I won the gold metal"
"I have made it" is used without a specific reference to time. Thus, it means the event happened at some point in the past but the speaker isn't being explicit about time. For example, "I have made it as a professional swimmer," means the speaker succeeded in becoming a professional swimmer but isn't being specific about the time that he succeeded.
I wouldn't ever use "I have made it on 2 January 1982." or even "I've made it yesterday." because those sentences include a reference to a specific time.
"I made it" -- You accomplished something. You would be telling someone about a specific time that you did something.
"I've made it" -- You didn't not accomplish something. You are telling someone that, in the grand scheme of your life, you have done something.
It's a very subtle difference. If you're specifically wondering about the verb "made", here are some examples:
Today I challenged myself to run a mile, and I made it.
I have always wanted to swim across the river, and now I've made it.
However, "to make it" in this sense is a strange idiomatic phrase where 90% of the time you would just say "I made it."
I saw a comment on r/books which has me questioning this. It seems technically proper, but still doesn't seem right. Thoughts?