It's not an unreasonable question, even if the word formed on its own in English, to wonder if that particular usage came about by the influence of the usage of an obvious cognate in another, nearby language. But I'd note that equivalents are used the exact same way in other languages (French, Spanish, Italian, and probably in non-European languages too), so it seems more likely just a natural extension of the more literal sense. If one of them did it first (and naturally one of them had to have been first), it'd probably be difficult to say which one it was, and whether there was any causal relationship to the other languages doing the same. More on reddit.com

My beloved Michio is fluent in Dutch. Sometimes it does use the English syntax but I kind of like that. And I love his Dutch during phone calls because it is without an accent. I found his Dutch to be better when I wrote in his background story that he is the CEO of a translation agency.

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Those expressions are called “calques”, and are so common that it often becomes impossible to tell what is or isn’t a calque, or which language it came from, unless you do actual research. It’s not just idioms with a poetic meaning. I recently found out that “mother lode” is a calque from Spanish “veta madre”. It’s worth noting that some languages have a stronger preference for calques (direct translations) over loanwords (foreign words in another language). Spanish has a preference for calques (“correo electrónico” is still in use alongside “email”, for example), and this preference is a result of having a stricter association between spelling and pronunciation rules. English has very little resistance to loanwords, precisely because native speakers are already used to inconsistent spellings and pronunciations, which is why, for example, you have “coup d’état”, rather than “state strike”, and Spanish has “golpe de estado”. There can also be some resistance to using a new calque when a native expression for that concept already exists, especially from English’s phrasal verbs. For example, it’s considered incorrect in Spanish to calque “I’ll call you back” as “te llamaré para atrás”, because we already have the expression “devolver la llamada” (to return the call). More on reddit.com

The term you're looking for is controlled natural language and the linked Wikipedia page has examples. You might need to go to different language wikis to see examples based in other languages. Hopefully this helps.

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