There is a simple solution if there is no drift, as the probability obeys a simple diffusion equation:
, here
is the price difference
. Of course there is a simple solution to the diffusion equation (using scaling as a method to solve the PDE):
to find the probability of hiting a barrier
on or before
simply ( :} ) integrate,
$$
\text{prob of hitting (
)} = \int\limits_{t=0}^{T} p(x,t)\mathrm{d}t
$$
There is a simple solution if there is no drift, as the probability obeys a simple diffusion equation:
, here
is the price difference
. Of course there is a simple solution to the diffusion equation (using scaling as a method to solve the PDE):
to find the probability of hiting a barrier
on or before
simply ( :} ) integrate,
$$
\text{prob of hitting (
)} = \int\limits_{t=0}^{T} p(x,t)\mathrm{d}t
$$
Assume the price follows a lognormal process. We can convert it, by taking the natural logarithm of the price, into a problem of finding the probability of a standard Brownian motion particle starting from and hitting
before time
, or its first passage time
being less than
. This can be derived through the reflection principle. The paths crossing
are exactly paired up by the segment post crossing through mirror reflection about
.
Case 1) No drift.
By the strong Markov property, at the moment a path first touches , the probabilities of the particle taking on either of two path mirror reflecting about the line
are the same, therefore the total probability of touching
is twice of that of particle reaching above
$$P(\tau_x<t) = \frac{2}{\sqrt{2\pi t}}\int_x^\infty e^{-\frac{y^2}{2t}} {\rm d}y=\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\int_{\frac{x}{\sqrt t}}^\infty e^{-\frac{y^2}{2}} dy={\rm erfc}\Big(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2t}}\Big).$$
Case 2) The drift is , where
is a constant.
The probability measure is \begin{align} dP(y) &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\exp\Big(-\frac{(y-vt)^2}{2t}\Big)\frac{{\rm d}y}{\sqrt t} \\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\exp\Big(vy-\frac{1}{2}v^2t\Big)\exp\Big(-\frac{y^2}{2t}\Big)\frac{{\rm d}y}{\sqrt t}. \end{align}
The set of paths crossing can be partitioned into two disjoint subsets, one ends at
above
and the other ends below. The probability
of the first set is obtained directly using the first expression above
\begin{align}
P_1 &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_x^{\infty}\exp\Big(-\frac{(u-vt)^2}{2t}\Big)\frac{{\rm d}u}{\sqrt t} \\
&=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{\frac{x}{\sqrt t}-v\sqrt t}^\infty e^{-\frac{y^2}{2}} dy \\
&= \frac{1}{2}{\rm erfc}\Big(\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\Big(\frac{x}{\sqrt t}-v\sqrt t\Big)\Big).
\end{align}
In the second set, the paths that end in is a subset of the set of all the paths that start from
and end in
. That former set one-to-one corresponds to the set of paths starting from
ending in
. The second expression for the probability measure indicates we can treat the first exponential as a factor or a random variable dependent only on the final time
and the second a new probability measure. The first factor can also be interpreted as a Radon-Nikodym derivative or Jacobian between two probability measures. This new measure makes any two path sets reflectively symmetric about
have the same measure just as in the driftless case, which allows us to compute the probability of second set using that of the first set when driftless. So the probability
of the second set is
\begin{align}
P_2 &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^x\exp\Big(vu-\frac{1}{2}v^2t\Big)\exp\Big(-\frac{(2x-u)^2}{2t}\Big)\frac{{\rm d}u}{\sqrt t} \\
&=\frac{e^{2vx}}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{\frac{x}{\sqrt{t}}+v\sqrt t}^\infty e^{-\frac{y^2}{2}} {\rm d}y \\
&= \frac{e^{2vx}}{2}{\rm erfc}\Big(\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\Big(\frac{x}{\sqrt t}+v\sqrt t\Big)\Big).
\end{align}
Therefore the probability of the particle passing
or the first passage time
of
less than
is the sum of the above two probability
How to calculate probability of touch?
The 2x probability is accurate. Can be derived using bayes theorem.
More on reddit.comWhat's the correct (best?) way of computing probability of an option ending ITM/OTM?
Any free options tools recommend?
Are option calculators pretty accurate?
How do I estimate POT using real price history?
To estimate the Probability of Touch (POT) using historical price data, look at how often the asset's price has reached or exceeded a specific barrier level in the past. Start by identifying all the instances where the price touched or went beyond the barrier during a given period. Then, calculate the proportion of periods where this occurred.
This method, rooted in observed price movements, provides a practical way to gauge POT based on real market behavior. It serves as a useful complement to theoretical models, offering insights grounded in actual data.
Does a strike touch mean I should exit the trade?
When the stock price hits the strike level before expiration, it’s known as a "touch." But a touch doesn’t automatically mean the option will be exercised or that you should exit the trade immediately. Instead of reacting impulsively, keep your focus on your broader strategy.
Think about your goals: are you managing risk, aiming to lock in income, or both? Timing matters here. Consider options like closing the position early or rolling it to a different strike or expiration to potentially improve your results. The key is staying aligned with your overall plan, not just the momentary price movement.
When does the 2× delta POT rule break down?
The 2× delta Probability of Touching (POT) rule starts to lose its accuracy as you approach the 21-day mark before expiration. By this time, the actual probability of touching often falls short of the theoretical delta-based estimate, particularly when dealing with index options. Additionally, puts tend to show a lower realized POT compared to calls, further diminishing the rule's reliability for precise forecasting.
Videos
I use Dough, follow TasteyTrade, sell premium, and trade based on probability of profit. Is there an easy way to calculate Probability of Touching a price during a time period given the POP, IV, etc? I'd like to try adjusting my trades so that I have a high POT, but a slightly lower POP. I think this will get me higher gains while helping to keep me from being assigned. Right now, I don't have a margin account yet, so I'm stuck with covered calls or buying options. I'm looking for a way to place better trades such that I can extract maximum premium, with the option expiring worthless so I also keep my stock and can churn out another call immediately.
EDIT: This video - https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JZ42W-hTFkk - mentions that POT is approximately 2x Prob ITM. So does this mean that if my POP for selling a call is 70%, then the POT is 60%? (Prob ITM = 100% - POP. POT = 2x Prob ITM).
This has been asked before here: https://www.reddit.com/r/interactivebrokers/comments/hliwm9/probability_of_options_ending_itmotm/
Basically what I want, is this:
-
pick an underlying
-
pick a date
-
pick a strike
Then, calculate the prob % that the underlying is on the low or the high side of the strike.
Possible solutions:
-
"See the delta of the option". E.g. if it's 0.23, that's 23% probability. That should be a ballpark approximation, but not sure.
-
See the "Profit probability" as reported by IBKR. I think the problem with this is that the premium is taken into consideration. E.g. I'm looking at an ATM option expiring 1y from now, with IV: 49%. The ATM option reports a "profit probability" of 32% or 66% respectively (buying or selling the option, respectively). Not 50%! So, these probabilities refer NOT to the strike price, but to the break-even price.
So if you want to find out the ITM/OTM probability for a particular strike, you actually have to find an option which has a break-even close to that strike! I.e. if you want to find probabilities for $19, you need to find an option at $24 that has a premium of $5, then the profit probability (of that $24 strike option) is the probability of the $19 you were looking for.
Any other way? And more practically: how should I be quickly answering such questions, using the mobile IBKR PRO app? (I've never bothered with TWS). The "delta" method seems best to me, because it's quickest, and I don't see any way to get accurate numbers anyway...
Aside: there used to be this (clunky) "probability lab" tool by IBKR, explained here: https://www.interactivebrokers.com/en/general/education/probability_lab.php
and offered here: https://cwt1.interactivebrokers.com/probabilitylab/ But it is taken down for years, probably.